My answer is D.

Here we can see that \(z\neq 0\). So z can either be 0 or 1.

Depending on the value of z Quantity B can be finite or infinite (as y cannot be 0 such that y/z can be written in 0/0 form).

Thus option D is the only possibility.
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Can you please explain z!=0
Some spaces would help remove any ambiguity (and they're free! )
z! (z factorial cannot equal 0), so presumably != is supposed to mean "no equal to"?
In future posts, you might want to write "not equal to" or add a space to show that there are no factorials (e.g., z != ), or use this ≠

Cheers,
Brent
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My answer was D. In response to the above, I assume that z! = 0 means z x z-1 x z-2 etc. so the only number that makes sense here is that z MUST equal 0. In that case option B above is an illegal number (since you can't have 0 in the denominator). Quantity A will always be negative because x is negative. I am not sure though how z! could equal 1 as per the above response?

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