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Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse

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Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse [#permalink] New post 11 Aug 2019, 16:09
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Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyses of the development of English Renaissance drama. They no longer accept the idea that the sudden achievement of Elizabethan playwrights was a historical anomaly, a sort of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary English subject matter. Instead, most students of the theater now view Elizabethan drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays.

Which of the following is NOT consistent with the passage above?

(A) England had a dramatic tradition before the Renaissance period.
(B) Elizabethan drama, once thought to be a sudden blossoming forth of creativity, is now seen as part of a historical continuum.
(C) Historians'views of the antecedents of English Renaissance drama have changed considerably.
(D) Current scholarship applies an evolutionary model to English Renaissance drama.
(E) Although English Renaissance drama treats English subject matter, its source of form and method is classical Greek drama.
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

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Re: Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse [#permalink] New post 27 Aug 2019, 10:13
Why not option (B) ? There's nothing on creatvitiy or historical continuum
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Re: Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse [#permalink] New post 28 Aug 2019, 15:04
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They no longer accept the idea that the sudden achievement of Elizabethan playwrights was a historical anomaly, a sort of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary English subject matter. Instead, most students of the theater now view Elizabethan drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays.

(B) Elizabethan drama, once thought to be a sudden blossoming forth of creativity, is now seen as part of a historical continuum.

Hope now is clear the inference

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Re: Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse [#permalink] New post 31 Aug 2019, 07:28
How is option D eliminated? This option has no relevance to the passage, shouldn't this be the answer ?
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Re: Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse [#permalink] New post 31 Aug 2019, 07:37
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Instead, most students of the theater now view Elizabethan drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays.

actually D says what B already assesses: it is a continuum.

Ask if it is still unclear for some reason
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Re: Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse [#permalink] New post 29 Jan 2020, 00:41
why is e correct?
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Re: Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse [#permalink] New post 29 Jan 2020, 04:16
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Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyses of the development of English Renaissance drama.

Basically this sentence tells us that historians are looking for a new interpretation of the English drama during a precise historic period. maybe, there new way or sources to look at it as it is NOW

They no longer accept the idea that the sudden achievement of Elizabethan playwrights was a historical anomaly, a sort of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary English subject matter.

This is sentence is long, complex, and it is the real gist of the problem. Its core.

The historians are dismissing the idea that the Elizabethan playwrights were an odd case.

Here we have to be super careful

a sort of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary English subject matter.

This sentence means that BEFORE we thought that the drama was a spurious realization of the Greek heritage of the same dram BUT applied to the modern era. However. this does not hold anymore. Instead, all the process has its roots in the medieval age with ELEMENTS of the Greek age


Instead, most students of the theater now view Elizabethan drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays.

Setting the case that we do have a heritage in the creation from the past to the modern era of the dram. The students also look at it as it has its roots in the medieval age. However, this statement is not dismissing that the dram itself does not carry on elements from the Greek age.

Which of the following is NOT consistent with the passage above?

(A) England had a dramatic tradition before the Renaissance period.

What is the tradition BEFORE the Renaissance is not our goal to explain or our inference

(B) Elizabethan drama, once thought to be a sudden blossoming forth of creativity, is now seen as part of a historical continuum.

This is the trickiest one. B says we do have a continuum but this is not true. We do know that the dram has its roots in the medieval age without dismissing key elements of the Greek age

(C) Historians'views of the antecedents of English Renaissance drama have changed considerably.

Could be but we do not have enough information to pinpoint this assertion

(D) Current scholarship applies an evolutionary model to English Renaissance drama.

Basically is a reframing of what B says. It is wrong

(E) Although English Renaissance drama treats English subject matter, its source of form and method is classical Greek drama.

We do have elements of the Greek age and its roots mainly are in the medieval age. Correct

Hope this helps
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Re: Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyse   [#permalink] 29 Jan 2020, 04:16
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