Explanation


1) The last sentence contradicted the actual sequence RP preceded W. As such, in the old conception is the other way around. A is the answer.

2) Choice E  ​ is therefore correct because “chronological”  means “related to time”.

3)   ​ Choice E is correct; by mentioning the classical (i.e., expected) conception being contradicted, the author gives the reader a reason that the events were  unexpected. 
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For the third question, I see that E works, but I'm wondering why B doesn't work?

But researchers actually found a surprising temporal relation between subjective experience and objectively measured neural events: in direct contradiction of the classical conception of free will, neural preparation to move (RP) preceded conscious awareness of the intention to move (W) by hundreds of milliseconds.

it is to show a new insight, a surprising thing about NOT a flaw in respect to the old conception.

Regards
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For the 1 st question, RP precedes W hence according to that B should be the answer.

Can somebody please explain in detail?

RP precedes W contradicts the classical theory. The question is asking about what would be the result according to classical theory. We need an answer opposite to the result mentioned in the passage. The answer is therefore A.
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why cant what is said in last line hold true for "classical conception of free will " i.e RP followed by W followed by M

can you please elaborate on question 2

So, the event of contraction is surprising???

The scientists compared W+M=RP. This is in a nutshell the meaning of the first sentence

Notice how = means preceeding



W comes BEFORE M and apparently there is a link , sequential, between what we perceive and then what our brain responds to those stimuli

The equation above can be written as W+m=RP



However, the scientists found that the equation, even though of milliseconds, is actually reversed

RP=W+m


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Based on information contained in the passage, which of the following chains of events would most closely conform to the classical conception of free will?

A) W followed by RP followed by M
B) RP followed by W followed by M
C) M followed by W followed by RP
D) RP followed by M followed by W
E) RP followed by W and M simultaneously

The second paragraph above tell us the clear sequence

W comes BEFORE M and apparently there is a link , sequential, between what we perceive and then what our brain responds to those stimuli

A is pretty easy if you understand and read carefully this. Otherwise, the 1st question is a bit tricky

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In the context in which it appears, “temporal ” most nearly means

A) secular
B) mundane
C) numerical
D) physiological
E) chronological

Easy one: temporal meaning the sequence of the events. E is the answer

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But researchers actually found a surprising temporal relation between subjective experience and objectively measured neural events:

The author of the passage mentions the classical conception of free will primarily in order to

A) argue that earlier theories regarding certain brain processes were based on false assumptions.
B) suggest a possible flaw in the reasoning of neuroscientists conducting the study discussed in the passage
C) provide a possible explanation for the unexpected results obtained by neuroscientists
D) cast doubt on neuroscientists’ conclusions regarding the temporal sequence of brain processes.
E) indicate the reason that the results of the neuroscientists’ study were surprising.

E without reservation


rx10

let me know if you do need further assistance
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